Anyhow, how do we reconcile Jn 3:22, IHSOUS ... EBAPTIZEN with
Jn 4:2, IHSOUS AUTOS OUK EBAPTIZEN ALL' hOI MAQHTAI AUTOU,
or is this a genuine contradiction?
An easy and natural explanation is evident if we see Jesus being put, by
metonymy, for His disciples in 3:22. This is something frequently done
in scripture. Compare Mt 3:16 where it says Herod killed (ANEILEN) all
the male children who were in Bethlehem and in all its districts. Are we
to suppose Herod personally killed all these male children? Hardly. He
most certainly had those under his authority do the actual killing..
In the same manner we should understand 3:22 as explained by John in
4:2. Jesus did not actually baptize anyone. He had His disciples do it.
But, of course, it was done in His name and under his authority, just as
Herod's men carried out His orders, but it was said Herod did the act.
When charges of textual contradiction are dropped on this list, some of
us
will not take it lightly and you can expect that you will be called on
it. If this
offends you, then why bother to stir the pot?
On the other hand, until anybody can categorically demonstrate that
internal
contradictions do exist, then it would behoove him to at least be open to
the
possibility they don't exist, and not to assume they do. I happen to
believe that God's written revelation is as internally consistent as
God's natural revelation, and that both are a necessary implication of an
internally consistent God.
Dr. Paul S. Dixon, Pastor
Wilsonville, Oregon
http://users.aol.com/dixonps
http://users.why.net/think/greek