>A question came up as we were reviewing the draft of 1 John in our
>translation project. In the phrase APAGGELLOMEN KAI HUMIN in 1 Jn 1:3,
>with which part of the clause does the KAI go? We recognize that all
>that precedes this clause is treated like the direct object, even
>though it is not in the accusative case. So is John saying, "We did
>all this and we are also declaring it to you."? Or is he saying, "All
>of this was a declaration to us, and we are making it a declaration to
>you also."?
Good to hear from the Philipines. Would that we could talk about this at
Harlow's Donut & Coffee.
Paul, this seems to me to be what LSJ calls the use of KAI to make a word,
group, or clause emphatic. The suggested translation in such a case is
"also."
Hence, "That which we have seen and heard we are declaring also (stronger,
even) to you." I have found that one key to look for in this use is that
KAI seems to join two things that are not equal, in this case the verb with
the pronoun.
Grace & Peace,
Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Chair, Division of Religious Studies
winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net
winbery@andria.lacollege.edu
voice 318 487-7241
fax 318 442-4996