Further, Peter quoted Ps 16:10 and used HADES as a translation of SHEOL:
RSV Acts 2:31 the Christ, that he was not abandoned to Hades,
GNT: TOU XRISTOU, hOTI OUTE EGKATELEIFQH EIS hADHN
Ps 15:10 LXX: hOTI OUK EGKATALEIYEIS THN YUXHN EIS hADHN
"since you will not leave my soul in HADES"
So, there is no question that HADES and SHEOL were equated words.
I suppose the unavoidable question is, in the mind of first century
Christians, did the semantic signal generated by the word HADES trigger
the SHEOL concept of "grave"/ "realm of the dead" (note: not "undead")?
Or rather a place with a fiery river Styx that needed to be crossed in a
boat with an oarsman?
Since Peter used the word as a translation for SHEOL, that is a strong
argument for the former. This understanding is consistent with Rev 20:13
where one day HADES will give up the "_dead_" in it.
Sincerely,
Wes Williams