I read it and deleted it before I thought about this, but someone said
something about how the generic use of the masculine had influenced thinking
is our culture. I suggest that this is the heart of the controversy. If the
generic use of the masculine has influenced our culture, removing the generic
use of the masculine will remove that influence. Are the translators so wise
as to know that the Author did not so choose such usage for such influence?
And will not the removal of the generic use of the masculine also remove us
further from culture of the Writers. Modern or not, leave such things alone.
And cut the readers under 30 some slack (A little modern usage here). They
also can easily learn to look at context and determine whether "inclusive" or
"exclusive" use in intended. As an end user, methinks some "modern"
translators take too much upon themselves.
William Boyd
Sunday School Teacher
Palm Beach Lakes Church of Christ