>PD
>Apparently scholars throughout church history have taken it this in 2
>Thess 2:2 (compare the UBS text punctuation notes where the only options
>cited are for a major punctuation, a minor punctuation, or a dash, all
>after TOU KURIOU and just before verse 3).
>
>Besides, what sense would you make of it, if you took it with verse 3?
RH
My basic problem is understanding v 2 -- what would trouble the Thessalonians
about the coming of the day of the Lord.
So, I thought, if we could drop the "day of the Lord" reference in v 2, then
the context would seem to shift to the persecutions and trials the people
were experiencing which could be a source of alarm, even causing some to turn
away from Christ. This then could lead some people, for the purpose of
encouraging the weak, to claim that the current tribulations were the prelude
to the day of the Lord which was soon to be upon them. Then, Paul would set
the record straight in v 3 -- "hWS hOTI ENESTHKEN hH hHMERA TOU KURIOU, let
no man deceive you by any means..." Paul's point would be that the
tribulation faced by the Thessalonians was the norm and not an extraordinary
event signaling the soon return of Christ.
So, now I am back to square one. What does v 2 mean?
Roger Hutchinson
RHutchin@AOL.com