> I have a book in which the author translates 1 John 3:9 as, "Whoever
> continues begotten of God does not practice sin." Is there any
> justification at all for this translation? If so, what is it?
Ted, I bet I know the name of that Book!! :-)
PAS / hO / GEGENHMENOS / EK TOU QEOU / hAMARTION / OU / POIEI
The rope-a dope English word substitution of that sentence reads:
"All / who / have been born / out of God / sin / not / are doing..."
Which adjusts easily to English with "All who have been born out of
God are not 'comitting' sin..."
I have generally found that any translation can be justified to the
satisfaction of the one who translates... :-)
Inferences belong to the apprehender and the text...
Hope this is helpful...
George