Re: 1 John 3:9

Jim West (jwest@highland.net)
Fri, 08 May 1998 12:39:52 -0400

At 11:53 AM 5/8/98 -0400, you wrote:
>B-Greekers:
>
>I have a book in which the author translates 1 John 3:9 as, "Whoever
>continues begotten of God does not practice sin." Is there any
>justification at all for this translation? If so, what is it?
>

No. Such a translation would require an imperfect, aorist ingressive, or
even present tense verb. The verb here is, as you know, a perfect. When
the author of 1 John uses the perfect tense he seems to always signify a
past action with a present result.

>Best,
>

To you as well.

>Ted

Jim
(neo-positivist at large)

++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology

jwest@highland.net