Scylla!!!
> and the other gal,
>whose name escapes me with regard to Col 1:20, i.e., DIA TOU AIMATOS, the
>dia with genitive regarding the salvific import of Christ's blood.
> So, without detailing my own theological bias, or inviting further
>theological bias, could someone explain the import of the genitive (as
>opposed to the dative) in this verse?
I take dia with the genitive as does Blass- i.e., "through" of space, time,
or agent. Or, dia with the genitive can also denote manner. Our good
friend Nigel Turner discusses dia with the genitive on page 267 or his 3rd
volume. It can mean "through" (i.e., agency), it can denote manner, or it
can equal "by" (in an urgent petition).
I think the context here necessitates taking it as the dia of agency. The
dative would, in my humble opinion, be quite out of place.
Jim
+++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology
jwest@highland.net