> Edar,
> >concept. Greek is no different. This can be easily demonstrated by
the
> >Grecian concept of love. The Hellenistic concept of love is not, nor
> >was it (in times of antiquity) expressed by one word. There are a
> >number of words used to express the concept of love in Greek. The
> >concept does not "consist of one word."
> But is there *one concept* of "love," being written by several
different
> words in the Greek, or are there several different concepts
expressed by
> different words in the Greek, but translated with *one word* in the
English?
I believe that the former is true. In Greek, there is **one concept**
of **love** and **knowledge** as well. Love is a universal concept, so
it is erroneous to make this an English only phenomenon. Knowledge is
expressed by such Greek words as GNWSIS or EPIGNWSIS (as well as
OIDA). Think also of the word "epistemology." These words all deal
with the concept of knowledge, but express it in differing ways. the
same can be said for love (which is expressed by agape, eros, storge,
philia).
> >help us to understand and express the concept of righteousness. This
> But is righteousness a concept or an English word? Just because we
can
> find someway of lumping lots of Greke words under the umbrella of a
single
> English word does not mean that we are dealing with multiple
expressions in
> Greek of a word which English more concisely lays out in a single
word.
I stick to my original contention that "righteousness" is a "concept."
The easiest way to prove these claims are (1.) diachronic study (2).
synchronic study (3.) psycholinguistics. I think Black's claims can be
proved on all of these fronts. See Black's _Linguistics and NT
Interpretation_.
Regards,
Edgar Foster
Lenoir-Rhyne College
Classics major
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