>
> Dear b-Greekers,
>
> I'm working on Galatians 1.9 and am confused by what seems to be the use
> of the accusative case for the indirect object. The problem clause is
> this one:
>
> ei tis umas euaggelizetai par' o parelabete
>
> Is umas to be considered the direct object of euaggelizetai, or is it an
> indirect object (to you). In the latter case I suppose the direct object
> would be an implied "Gospel" which serves as the understood antecedent of
> the relative pronoun in o parelabete. Or am I just reading this wrong?
>
Of course umas is a direct object of euaggelizomai. The person or
community to which the Gospel is preached is the object of that action.
The same happens in many languages (spanish, italian, polish). In polish
you use the pronoun in accusative just like in greek (ewangelizowac -
kogo? co? - nas).
Krzysztof Bardski
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