->>>>>>>>>>>
I'm working on Galatians 1.9 and am confused by what seems to be the use
of the accusative case for the indirect object. The problem clause is
this one:
ei tis umas euaggelizetai par' o parelabete
Is umas to be considered the direct object of euaggelizetai, or is it an
indirect object (to you). In the latter case I suppose the direct object
would be an implied "Gospel" which serves as the understood antecedent of
the relative pronoun in o parelabete. Or am I just reading this wrong?
Ian W. Scott
Grad student in Religious Studies, McMaster University
<<<---------
The answer is that EUAGGELIZOMAI takes the accusative for the content of
the proclamation, and EITHER dative (as in Gal. 1:8) OR accusative (as in
Gal. 1:9) for the recipient of the proclamation. Dative is more common.
See Bauer, 2.a.gamma.
Edward Hobbs
PS: Your distinguished faculty used to include Ben Meyer (now deceased), Ed
Sanders (now at Duke), and John Robertson (still there?), all old friends--
Ben was a colleague of mine in Berkeley back in the 1960's, Ed went to SMU/
Perkins in 1958 to study with me (just as I left for Berkeley!), and John
was a student of mine at SMU, I seem to recall.
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