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divorce



The phrase "MIAS GUNAIKOS ANDRA" in 1 Tim.3:2; does it mean a man who
has been married only one time in his life? Or does is mean that a man
is to be monogamous as opposed to polygamous?  Is there evidence to
indicate that polygamy was a practice in vogue during the first few
centuries to the extent that Paul would have to write against it?  I
would be interested in some comments from those who have studied the
phrase. Thanks.  John Tinnin jdt2u@Virginia.edu


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