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Re: "gift of the Holy Spirit"
Jim Hill asks:
> Please comment on the meaning of the greek phrase which is translated "gift
> of the Holy Spirit" in Acts 2:38. Does it clearly mean either "gift which is
> the Holy Spirit" OR "gift belonging to (from) the Holy Spirit"?
>
At a distance of some 2000 years from the time of writing, I doubt we
will ever be able to say it "clearly" is the subjective or objective
or possessive genitive. I could be wrong, but it would take a great
deal of effort to isolate all such examples from the NT and
contemporary literature and devise a means of differentiating
"clearly" between subjective and objectives.
Glenn Wooden
Acadia Divinity College
Wolfville, Nova Scotia, Canada