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Re: Re[2]: Did Jesus teach in Greek?
On the use of Aramaic expressions in the Greek NT, note that the
expressions appear in two types: (1) Aramaic expressions on the lips of
Jesus in the Gospels, and (2) what are likely liturgical expressions (the
"maranatha" of 1 Cor. 16:22, and the "Abba" of Rom 8:15; Gal. 4:6).
That is, the citing of Aramaic expressions functions as part of
either repeating important words of the "Master" where the intent is to
preserve actual sounds/wording, as part of a reverence for "venerable"
tradition (or at least to present such an orientation), or, such
expressions function as part of a use/appropriation of sacred liturgical
terms, where the intention seems to be to manifest some continuity with
the "mother tradition" of Jewish Christianity in the Pauline churches.
We could also lump in here Paul's occasional use of Peter's
Aramaic name "Cephas" as a related item, which allows Paul to show his
familiarity with Peter. "You may know him as Peter, but among Jews such
as myself he is Cephas" sort of thing.
Larry Hurtado, Religion, Univ. of Manitoba