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Luke 3:21
Re Luke's redaction of the baptism of Jesus...
It looks to me that this awkwardness in Luke was necessitated by Luke's
inclusion of the imprisonment of John in the preceding two verses, so he has to
revert back to the time of John's activity. I would not read a great deal
either into Mk/Mt's euqus or into the tense differentiation in Lks gen.abs
phrase. Could it not be simply because baptism is difficult to regard as
anything other than a simple act, whereas praying is inherently an ongoing
activity? Are not participles of speaking verbs typically present tense?
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** Dan G. McCartney | I'net: DMCCARTNEY@HSLC.ORG **
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