John 1

• To: b-greek@virginia.edu
• Subject: John 1
• From: David Coomler <davidco@nethost.multnomah.lib.or.us>
• Date: Wed, 13 Jul 1994 11:16:18 -0700 (PDT)

<I think David Coomler's original question was about how to translate
"theos", right?...
<...can "theos" be construed as adjectival, "divine"?

    Right, Gregory.  I am very interested in all points of view on this
question, and particularly interested in parallel constructions elsewhere
in NT period literature.  Discussions on the topic, both grammatical and
exegetical, often provide much smoke but little illumination.

Regarding the recent comment that one must "think in Greek," a friend
commented, "Not just in Greek, but in Greek of the time, place, and
theological environment in which this was written."  Further, to imply
that a concept clear in Greek cannot be made equally clear in English
seems highly questionable (not to mention theologically disastrous), but
perhaps I misunderstood the statement.

• Prev: john 1
• Next: Re: John 1
• Index(es):
  • Main
  • Thread