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John 1
Why question the meaning of this? Is there some hidden "truth" that
would challange the widely accepted translation/interpetation of
John 1:1. If God could Divinely inspire the Greek writers to write the
passage, would He not also see that it was not grossly mis-interpeted
by the vast-majority of texts? <sarcassicly> But, of course, YOU
(noone in paticular) could be the "chosen-one" to enlighten the world on
a "hidden truth" that would change vastly popular interpetataion. I'm
afraid that it this were the case, that person would have just stepped
into of dangerous territory of darkening the Gospel and perverting the
Truth. For instance, I knew a man who took the saying of Jesus on the
cross, "Eloi Eloi, lama sabachthani" to mean, "My God, My Divine
Strength, You have remained with me and have given water to flow as a
river because of my sufferings." (something to that effect) --- He
could not believe what the Greek said, nor English translation because
he could not see God forsaking His Son, not even for a moment. But,
Jesus had to be forsaken so that even a false-prophet could be saved.
He changed the meaning and perverted the truth that would even save him
from the judgement of being utterly forsaken. Please, consider that
changing interpetation to fit a minority view, should be heavily weighed
against what God intended. My friend, you will not know God unless you
spend time with Him. And unless you spend time with HIM, you could very
well mis-interpet His Words and be using your words, or even worse,
words perveted by the father of lies.
--
Wade Balzer
Insight Direct, Inc.
Voice: (800) 805-3042, Fax: (602) 902-1180
email: wbalzer@insightd.com