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Re: John 1:1
On Wed, 30 Nov 1994, Gregory Jordan (ENG) wrote:
>
> On Tue, 29 Nov 1994, Travis Bauer wrote:
>
> > Quite in opposition to making the use of Qeos more ambiguous, I think this
> > verse supports my argument for John 1:1. The fact that the Jews were ready
> > to stone Jesus for calling himself divine is a testimony to the offense the
> > Jews took at how Jesus, and John uses the term Qeos.
>
> But you are blurring "divine" with "God" in the way that I showed is not
> normal in English. The "Jews" were offended by everything about Jesus,
> it does not here prove that they understood him to be claiming to be YHWH
> in person, especially since he clearly limits himself to being the son of
> said YHWH, his father. The son of a god is a god, but the son of God
> could not be God if God is a person, unless one is entertaining a
> paradox. And again, the burden of proof is then on the paradoxical reading.
I do not believe that Jesus limits himself to being only the Son of
Yahweh. In John 8:58 Jesus appears to claim the name of God - Before
Abraham was, I am." The Greek is egw eimi - with the emphatic "I". Is
this not the greek equivalent to YHWH - "I Am (what I am)"?
Leroy Huizenga
Jamestown College, North Dakota
huizenga@acc.jc.edu
Follow-Ups:
- Re: John 1:1
- From: "Gregory Jordan (ENG)" <jordan@chuma.cas.usf.edu>
References:
- Re: John 1:1
- From: "Gregory Jordan (ENG)" <jordan@chuma.cas.usf.edu>