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Re: John 1:1
On Wed, 30 Nov 1994, Leroy Huizenga 1996 wrote:
> I do not believe that Jesus limits himself to being only the Son of
> Yahweh. In John 8:58 Jesus appears to claim the name of God - Before
> Abraham was, I am." The Greek is egw eimi - with the emphatic "I". Is
> this not the greek equivalent to YHWH - "I Am (what I am)"?
Yes, although a person who spoke only Greek would not get the yihyeh-Yahweh
pun and so see a proper name here. But even more importantly, the
address in the name of God is often performed by angels, angels of the
LORD, etc. That is, an angel often says "I am the LORD..." by speaking
God's message, not by claiming to be the sender. This is so in the
Hebrew Bible, but even more in the NT where we learn that the law of
Moses was given by angels, not directly by God (which is not the conclusion
one would immediately draw from the Hebrew Bible).
Later Greek speakers kept this distinction: Eusebius sees all the
theophanies as those of Jesus as distinct from his father, because of
their character: "Reason would never allow that the uncreated and
immutable substance of Almighty God should be changed into the form of a
man, or, alternatively, that by the illusion of any created thing it
should deceive the eyes of the beholder, or that Scripture should falsely
invent such a tale. Who then could be spoken of as God, and the Lord who
is the judge of the world and does justice, appearing in human shape? As
it is not permissible to suggest the First Cause of the universe, there
is only one answer - His pre-existent Word." (Ecclesiastical History
1.2). Eusebius then goes on to say the Burning Bush episode was a
theophany of the son.
Greg Jordan
jordan@chuma.cas.usf.edu
Follow-Ups:
References:
- Re: John 1:1
- From: Leroy Huizenga 1996 <huizenga@acc.jc.edu>