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b-greek-digest V1 #881




b-greek-digest          Saturday, 30 September 1995    Volume 01 : Number 881

In this issue:

        Re: Sinaiticus/Vaticanus
        Re: More questions on Mark 
        Re: More questions on Mark
        PISTIS in Romans 1 again
        Re: Classical Greek, etc. (long)

----------------------------------------------------------------------

From: Larry Chouinard <fa78935@kcc.edu>
Date: Fri, 29 Sep 1995 09:37:31 -0700 (PDT)
Subject: Re: Sinaiticus/Vaticanus

While I know that the below inquiry had reference to facsimilies of 
Siniaticus and Vaticanus I could not help but be reminded of an incident 
that occurred a couple years ago at Kentucky Christian college.  Being 
situated in a very rural area, our librarian had a local 
preacher request to check out the Dead Sea Scrolls in the King James 
version.

larry Chouinard
Kentucky Christian College

On Thu, 21 Sep 1995, David Rising wrote:

> As a relatively new comer to the e-discussion phenomena, I have enjoyed 
> listening in one some great discussions.  
> 
> Does anyone know where I could get hard copies of Sinaiticus or 
> Vaticanus?  I would like to beef up my reading skills in uncials (as well 
> as put more in my library).  Thanks in advance for any help.
> 
> I am spending equal time these days in BH and the GNT and I would love to
> hear some discussion on how NT writers may have used Semitic conventions
> in the different genre of the NT or even classical Greek.
> 
> David
> 
>   -------------------
>  |  David J. Rising  |
>  |  rising@epix.net  |
>  |  Factoryville, PA |
>  |    717-945-3850   |
>   -------------------
> 

------------------------------

From: Bruce Terry <terry@bible.acu.edu>
Date: Fri, 29 Sep 1995 10:34:13 CST
Subject: Re: More questions on Mark 

On Thu, 28 Sep 1995, >Jim McGuire wrote:

>On 9-28-95, Bruce Terry  wrote:
>
><<Apparently you missed the discussion earlier this year in which it was
>pointed
>out that the LXX of Ex. 3:14 has hO WN used alone of God rather than EGW
>EIMI. 
>First it says EGW EIMI hO WN "I am the Being" and then it says hO WN
>APESTALKEN ME PROS hUMAS "The Being sent me to you."  However, this is not
>the
>equivalent of Yahweh; that in verse 15 is KURIOS.>>
>
>Bruce, you are disagreeing with scholars greater than me on this issue.  A.T.
>Robertson comments on John 8:58 saying, "Undoubtedly here Jesus claims
>eternal existence iwth the absolute phrase used of God" (Word Pictures in the
>New Testament, Vol. V, pp. 158-9).  Even in John 8:24, he says, "Jesus seems
>to claim absolute divine being as in 8:58" (p. 146).
>
>As for this use in the LXX of the Old Testament, see Deuteronomy 32:39.  An
>astounding similar phrase occurs in Isaiah 43:10 where the very words occur
>HINA PISTEUSETE---HOTI EGO EIMI.  Furthermore, Kittel regards the same
>quoting Isaiah 43:10 as well.  He says, "He is equal with the Father....The
>point is not Jesus' self-identification as the Messiah ("I am he") but his
>supratemporal being" (Theological Dictionary of the New Testament Abridged in
>One Volume, ed. by Geoffrey W. Bromiley, p. 207).  
>
>Such noteable scholarship as Baur, Arndt, and Gingrich include the LXX of
>Exodus 3:14 in the same section as John 8:58, discussing EGO EIMI used its
>reference to God  (A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, p. 223).

(with egg on my face)
Jim, where were you and Larry in the discussion earlier this year?  Thanks for
the passages in Deut. and Isa. where EGW EIMI is used in the LXX of God;
however, I note in my defense that in neither place does EGW EIMI translate
)HYH (Hebrew for "I am" and probable cognate with YHWH "Yahweh").  And while I
was wrong on EGW EIMI (although note that I pointed out that it once
translates )HYH in Ex. 3:14), I still maintain that it is KURIOS (and
sometimes QEOS) that translates YHWH in the LXX, not EGW EIMI.

I have no quarrel with the idea that John 8:24 and 58 are references to the
divinity of Jesus; certainly 8:58 is at the very least a claim for his
pre-existence (cf. 1:1).  I do have qualms about Jesus' saying "it's me" as he
walks on the water being a claim for divinity.  The same words in different
contexts do not always mean the same things.   

********************************************************************************
Bruce Terry                            E-MAIL: terry@bible.acu.edu
Box 8426, ACU Station		       Phone:  915/674-3759
Abilene, Texas 79699		       Fax:    915/674-3769
********************************************************************************

------------------------------

From: "Larry W. Hurtado" <hurtado@cc.umanitoba.ca>
Date: Fri, 29 Sep 1995 13:02:31 -0500 (CDT)
Subject: Re: More questions on Mark

On Fri, 29 Sep 1995, Bruce Terry wrote:

> Jim, where were you and Larry in the discussion earlier this year?  Thanks for
> the passages in Deut. and Isa. where EGW EIMI is used in the LXX of God;
> however, I note in my defense that in neither place does EGW EIMI translate
> )HYH (Hebrew for "I am" and probable cognate with YHWH "Yahweh").  And while I
> was wrong on EGW EIMI (although note that I pointed out that it once
> translates )HYH in Ex. 3:14), I still maintain that it is KURIOS (and
> sometimes QEOS) that translates YHWH in the LXX, not EGW EIMI.
> 
> I have no quarrel with the idea that John 8:24 and 58 are references to the
> divinity of Jesus; certainly 8:58 is at the very least a claim for his
> pre-existence (cf. 1:1).  I do have qualms about Jesus' saying "it's me" as he
> walks on the water being a claim for divinity.  The same words in different
> contexts do not always mean the same things.

Bruce,  My point in citing the passages in Isa 42-45 where the LXX has 
"ego eimi" as a self-referential formula of God was that the formula is 
such, and I never suggested it was a translation of YHWH.  That's a 
red-herring.  The point is that the appearances of "ego eimi" in 
theophanic contexts such as Mk 6 (storm-stilling miracle, just the sort 
of thing God does e.g., in Ps 107, etc.) might well have been intended to 
allude to the Greek of Isa 42-45 for lst cent. readers of the Greek of 
Mark.  (And part of the argument depends upon reading Mark in Greek, and 
having as one's "bible" the Greek OT and being thus able to catch 
allusions without having to ransack a concordance!).
	I quite applaud your emphasis that words and phrases have their 
meaning in contexts, and can vary from one to another.  Precisely.  
It's the appearance of this "ego eimi" formula in a narrative episode 
that seems theophanic, and in a larger narrative (Mark) that seems 
intent on asserting for Jesus a divine-like transcendent significance 
- -- all this leads me to find in the particular "ego eimi" of Mark 6 
something more than "It's me boys".

Larry Hurtado, Religion, Univ. of Manitoba

------------------------------

From: drmills@kuhub.cc.ukans.edu
Date: Fri, 29 Sep 1995 15:09:25 -0500 (CDT)
Subject: PISTIS in Romans 1 again

On 9-26 I asked,
>In 1:17, what is the meaning of EK PISTEWS EIS PISTIN?
and in part the BibAnsMan replied,
>It is the righteousness of God being evidenced or revealed 
>from faith to faith to faith to faith.  Paul is pointing to
>the individual believer's faith as it is revealed, whether
>he is Jew or Greek, or whatever he may be.

The answer confuses me (I am not sure what each "it" refers to).  You 
seem to take EK PISTEWS as an ablative of separation modifying the verb 
APOKALUPTETAI.  If so, just what does "to be revealed from faith" mean?  
Somehow "Paul is pointing to the individual believer's faith as it (God's 
righteousness or believer's faith?) is revealed" does not explain the 
construction to me.

The NIV understands EK PISTEWS EIS PISTIN to modify DIKAIOSUNH.  Can 
something like this be justified (no pun intended) seeing these two 
phrases are so far removed from DIKAIOSUNH?  

A Question Man :)

===========================
David R. Mills
drmills@kuhub.cc.ukans.edu
Applied English Center
University of Kansas


------------------------------

From: David Moore <dvdmoore@dcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us>
Date: Fri, 29 Sep 1995 16:47:07 -0400 (EDT)
Subject: Re: Classical Greek, etc. (long)

"Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu> wrote:

>Be careful! In the course of some thirty +
>years of teaching Concordia Seminary students who just wanted to continue
>with classical Greek while taking their B.D., I've seen a few get so hooked
>on it that they've not pursued a ministerial career after all. One of those
>was the late John Hollar of Fortress Press, who did a Ph.D. dissertation
>with me; another who got a Ph.D. in Greek at Washington U. not long before
>I got there is Edgar Krentz, who can speak for himself to this list. I can
>say all this because I myself was an undergraduate at Tulane once with
>every intention of going into the ministry, but before I got that far I was
>hooked on Classical Greek.


	There are also some classical scholars who have become competent
and have served quite well in the area of New Testament studies.  A couple
of them that came to mind as I read Carl's post are J. B. Lightfoot and F.
F. Bruce.  Others on the list could probably suggest some additional
names. 

Regards,


David L. Moore                             Southeastern Spanish District
Miami, Florida                               of the  Assemblies of God
dvdmoore@dcfreenet.seflin.lib.fl.us           Department of Education



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End of b-greek-digest V1 #881
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