John 1:1 and the JW's

From: DR. KEN PULLIAM (thedoc@aztec.asu.edu)
Date: Tue Aug 08 1995 - 11:23:45 EDT


John Albu wrote advocating the JW (Arian) interpretation of John 1:1.
He quoted a number of obscure translations which seem to support his
interpretation. The fact is all of the standard translations in all
languages and the overwhelming majority of all translations (better
than 90%) would render the verse: "and the Word was God."

John is right to say that the anarthrous predicate nominative is
used to qualify or describe the subject. Theos does give the
qualitative nature of logos, as to his nature he was theos, i.e.
deity. The article by Harner in JBL is accurate but it does not
support the JW translation, and I don't think that he would like
being quoted in support of the NWT.

B. F. Westcott has a good comment on why there is no article before
Theos in John 1:1.

        The predicate (God) stands emphatically first, as in iv.24. It
        is necessarily without the article inasmuch as it describes the]
        nature of the Word and does not identify His Person. It would be
        pure Sabellianism to say "the Word as ho theos." No idea of
        inferiority of nature is suggested by the form of expression,
        simply affirms the true deity of the Word. (Comm. on John, p. 3)

By the way, it is interesting to note that in John 1:6, 12, 18 Theos
occurs without the article and clearly refers to God in the absolute
sense.

--
Ken R. Pulliam, Ph.D.
Chandler, Arizona
thedoc@aztec.asu.edu


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