Re: translation of "melle"

From: Alan M Feuerbacher (alanf@mdhost.cse.tek.com)
Date: Fri Aug 25 1995 - 17:23:25 EDT


Carlton Winbery wrote, concerning Mark 13:4,

>All language is kind of fuzzy I think. But what I see in the statement is
>"how can we know when these things are about to happen?"

I see. That's about what I thought.

On Matthew 24:3:

>"Would you care to expand on that?"
>
>I would comment that in Mark the question seems to focus only on what Jesus
>has just predicted, but Matthew brings in another subject, POTE TAUTA ESTAI
>KAI TI TO SHMEION THS SHS PAROUSIAS KAI SUNTELEIAS TOU AIWNOS; "When shall
>these things be and what (is) the sign of your coming and the consumation of
>the age?"
>
>You could read the question in Mark as having nothing to do with eschatology
>but not Matthew 24:3.

Then, assuming that the three gospel accounts are just different versions
of the same events, Matthew 24:3 would be an expansion upon Mark 13:4, right?

Here is a related question about Matthew 24:3, concerning the proper
translation of "parousia". Most translations render "parousia" as
"coming" but a small number as "presence". What's the story?

Alan Feuerbacher
alanf@mdhost.cse.tek.com



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