Re: translation of "melle"

From: WINBROW@aol.com
Date: Fri Aug 25 1995 - 18:16:47 EDT


Alan Feuerbacher wrote,
"Then, assuming that the three gospel accounts are just different versions of
the same events, Matthew 24:3 would be an expansion upon Mark 13:4, right?"

For those who work with the two document hypothesis, yes.

Alan also wrote,
"Here is a related question about Matthew 24:3, concerning the proper
translation of "parousia". Most translations render "parousia" as "coming"
but a small number as "presence". What's the story?"

The word actually comes from the compound word PAREIMI. The word PAROUSIA is
the feminine participle of that verb. It could be argued that the word
simply means "to be present." But most lexicons (including Moulton & Gedden)
give evidence that it came to mean "arrival." Of course in Christian
theology, it became a technical term for the "second coming," though it is
never modified to my knowledge in the NT with the word "second."
Carlton L. Winbery
LA College, Pineville, LA



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