From: Carlton Winbery (winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net)
Date: Fri Dec 15 1995 - 09:14:22 EST
Carl Conrad said;
>If the infinitive is referring back to the subject of the main sentence,
>then its subject will be nominative:
>
>Socrates says, somewhere early in the _Apology_ of Plato:
>
> DIKAIOS OUN EINAI MOI DOKW, "I think then that I am within my
>rights ..."
It seems to me (pun) that the "subject" of this infinitive is in the dative
(reference). Like Paul in Phil.1:21 EMOI GAR TO ZHN XRISTOS . . . "For me
to live is Christ."
>And similarly he says EGW DE AUTOS EU OIDA OUDEN EIDWS, "But I know very
>well that I myself know nothing." Here it is the participle that is in the
>nominative, but the principle is precisely the same. Whereas LATIN while
>require a reflexive pronoun in the accusative even when the speaker is
>talking of himself, Greek will use the nominative in such a situation:
The participle in this one seems to be used to indicate indirect discourse.
Paul usually uses the accusative with the infinitives like in Phil. 1:13
hWSTE TOUS DESMOUS MOU FANEROUS EN XRISTWi GENESQAI EN hOLWi PRAITWRIWi . .
"so that my bonds have become evident (as being) in Christ among the whole
praetorium". .
Calton L. Winbery
Prof. Religion
LA College, Pineville, La
winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net
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