From: Carlton Winbery (winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net)
Date: Thu Jan 11 1996 - 22:59:39 EST
Marshall Brown wrote;
> Greetings in Christ from Vsetin, Czech Republic!
>
> I've got a question as to the use of the "gar" in Phil 1:8.
>
> 1) Is the "gar" illative, explanatory, or emphatic?
> I see that the NASB translates it 'for' which leaves it ambiguous,
>while a Czech translation of the Bible known as the Kralicky translation
>translates it "zajiste" meaning "certainly." I've also noticed that a few
>translations, both English and Czech, do not translate it at all.
>
> 2) Based upon your answer in #1 then what do you see it pointing
>back to
>or explaining?
The New Revised Standard simply renders the verse with "For God is . . ."
The new Contemporary English Version translates, "God himself knows . . ."
The NRSV assumes that the verse gives a reason or bases for Vs. 7, "For me
to think this way about you is right." The CEV makes the use of GAR
emphatic, strenthening the claim made in vs. 7. I would tend to agree with
the CEV.
Grace and peace,
Carlton L. Winbery
Prof. Religion
LA College, Pineville, La
winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net
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