From: Kenneth Litwak (kenneth@sybase.com)
Date: Mon Jan 22 1996 - 22:59:14 EST
Carl Conrad wrote;
>Considering the Greek of the Psalms in the LXX, it was all the translator
>could do to get the Hebrew into intelligible Greek! ;-)
First, thanks for that informative post. Now, since you said this, I have
to ask another question. When I was translating both Ps 109 and Ps 15, it seemed
to me, based on looking at an English translation (not the Hebrew I admit),
namely the NASB, where I go when I want as close to literal in English as
possible, that either the translator(s) didn't know Hebrew very well or must
have had a very different text in front of him/her. For example, in Ps 15,
the psalmist, according to the NASB, said that "you Lord are my only good"
or words to that effect. The LXX, unless my Greek is very bad, said
"You have no need of my good things". My Hebrew is good enough to know the
difference. Has this been analyzed to the point where it can be said
whether the translator wasn't up to snuff or he/she used a different vorlage?
Thanks.
Ken Litwak
GTU
Bezerkley, CA
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