From: Kenneth Litwak (kenneth@sybase.com)
Date: Mon Jan 22 1996 - 20:57:38 EST
I've noticed, especially in the Apostolic Fathers, more so than I have in the
NT, though it's present there certainly, the use of the Aorist subjunctive
passive in both comands and assertions, both things that don't seem
appropriate to what I know about the subjunctive and especially inappropriate
for a "passive" voice. Can someone explain to me how this form came to be
used this way, if that's understood by scholars at all?
BTW, since it's raised so many questions, I meant to type Ps 16:1, not 161.
Unfortunately, the keyboard on my NT machine at home practically requires
plastique to make a keystroke, hence I have more typos at home where I can't
easily fix them than at work. ANd after all that, I realzied I should have
been translating Ps 15, not 16. Why couldn't the LXX Psalm translator at least
count correctly to 16?
Ken Litwak
GTU
Bezerkley, CA
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