From: Carlton L. Winbery (winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net)
Date: Thu May 09 1996 - 02:06:22 EDT
>Marion Fox here:
>
>It is my understanding that the subject of a Greek finite verb is in the
>nominative case. Do you have a cite of some accepted authority to prove
>this point?
It is a matter of observation.
>In addition, does this mean that the subject is either a nominative case
>(noun, pronoun, adjective, or articular participle).
Or noun clause or infinitive, that is any noun substitute.
>It is also my understanding that the ending(s) of the finite verb are the
>remnants of Greek pronouns and that these endings function as the subject
>of the verb. If this is true does this mean that these endings are
>pronouns and they are the subject that is in the nominative case or does it
>have to take another word in the nominative case?
A verb by itself in Greek can constitute a complete sentence. In the third
person singular the "he, she, or it" is sometimes unclear and is more
specific with a subject in the nominative singular (eg. ESTIN in Mark
13:28).
>I understand that the subject could be either stated or elliptical but if
>it is elliptical must it be in the nominative case?
yes.
>Would it be possible for someone to give me some documentation on this? I
>cannot find these questions discussed in the books to which I have access.
Most of the Greek grammars that I have used make this clear. It is also
discussed in the syntax books. Jim Brooks and I indicate this in the one
we wrote, Syntax of New Testament Greek pp. 3, 154, 163. We had a
discussion of the "subjects" of infinite verbs some time back on b-greek.
Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:42 EDT