From: Fred Haltom (haltom@cbcag.edu)
Date: Wed Apr 23 1997 - 18:00:57 EDT
At 11:42 AM -0500 4/15/97, Knox Mike wrote:
>Greetings,
> I have been working my way through 1 John, and I ran into a
> roadblock on
>Chapter 2, verse 6:
>
> O LEGWN EN AUTW MENEIN OFEILEI KAQWS EKEINOS PERIEPATHSEN
> KAI AUTOS [OUTWS] PERIPATEIN.
>
> I am having trouble understanding how the infinitive MENEIN should
> be
>translated here. Several translations, such as the NASB translate it
>as a present indicative ("The one who says he abides in him,
>ought...."). My question, is simply, why?
One function of the infinitive is to introduce indirect discourse.
"The one who says ....that... (instead of hOTI the simple infinitive
is used).
This function of the infinitive is very common. We expect to find it
after verbs of speaks, thinking, etc..
****************************************
Fred Haltom
Assoc. Prof. of Christian Ministry
Central Bible College
haltom@cbcag.edu
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