From: Rod Decker (rdecker@bbc.edu)
Date: Wed Jun 25 1997 - 14:23:33 EDT
I'm working through a fascinating book this week: Robert Binnick, *Time and
the Verb: A Guide to Tense and Aspect* (Oxford, 1991). He has an
interesting explanation of the subjunctive mood that I do not remember
seeing in NT studies (I wonder if it may not come from Latin grammar [of
which I know nothing]?)
"The subjunctive...is primarily used in the classical languages to indicate
the subordination of one verb to another, and has no clearly defined
'attitudinal' characterization." (p. 67)
This differs from NT grammars which usually describe it as expressing
potentiality, uncertainity, etc. It is obviously true in that subjunctives
appear in subordinate clauses, but is this all that it means? Any thoughts?
Rod
_________________________________________________________________
Rodney J. Decker Asst. Prof./NT
rdecker@bbc.edu Baptist Bible Seminary
http://www.bbc.edu/courses/BBS/RDecker/Index.htm
_________________________________________________________________
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