From: Jonathan Robie (jwrobie@mindspring.com)
Date: Wed Jun 25 1997 - 14:42:34 EDT
At 02:23 PM 6/25/97 -0400, Rod Decker wrote:
>I'm working through a fascinating book this week: Robert Binnick, *Time and
>the Verb: A Guide to Tense and Aspect* (Oxford, 1991). He has an
>interesting explanation of the subjunctive mood that I do not remember
>seeing in NT studies (I wonder if it may not come from Latin grammar [of
>which I know nothing]?)
>
>"The subjunctive...is primarily used in the classical languages to indicate
>the subordination of one verb to another, and has no clearly defined
>'attitudinal' characterization." (p. 67)
>
>This differs from NT grammars which usually describe it as expressing
>potentiality, uncertainity, etc. It is obviously true in that subjunctives
>appear in subordinate clauses, but is this all that it means? Any thoughts?
Does he explore this with any examples? I'm a very concrete thinker, and I'd
be very interested to see how he analyzes one or two specific uses of the
subjunctive in light of the above definition.
Jonathan
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Jonathan Robie jwrobie@mindspring.com http://www.mindspring.com/~jwrobie
POET Software, 3207 Gibson Road, Durham, N.C., 27703 http://www.poet.com
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