From: Lance Crimm (Lance_Crimm@daystar.com)
Date: Mon Jun 23 1997 - 09:29:13 EDT
Mail*Link(r) Remote RE>>ANDRA and ANHR in the Genealo
Am I to assume that coniah is "from Cain?"
If so are you saying one of his siblings did in fact marry into someone
who is of the 8 souls on the ark?
Eagerly ready to learn this idea...
Lance
--------------------------------------
Date: 6/22/97 3:52 AM
To: Lance Crimm
From: bbot@ksc.th.com
This could be clarified when all the data are in: the Coniah line was
under a curse. There will never be a fulfillment of the Davidic Covenant
that a son would be king forever from the line of David in the line of
Coniah.
It is an understanding amongst conservatives that the line of Mary was the
line of Nathan - which still fulfills the Davidic Covenant and fulfills the
curse placed on Coniah and his descendants.
The reference in Genesis is definitely for the view that ANHR is applied to
a husband. This is how I understand the account in Matthew 1:16 TON ANDRA
MARIAS.
----------
> From: Micheal Palmer <mwpalmer@earthlink.net>
> To: bbot@ksc.th.com; b-greek@virginia.edu
> Subject: Re: ANDRA and ANHR in the Genealogy of Jesus Christ
> Date: 22 2540 12:17
>
> At 4:47 PM +0700 6/21/97, Lemuel G. Abarte wrote:
> >The convincing evidence in context is Genesis 3:17 in the LXX: kai pros
> >ton andra sou hH apostrofH sou...
>
> How, exactly, is this 'convincing evidence'? How are you understanding
the
> LXX reference? The LXX of Genesis 3:17 uses ANDRA to mean 'husband', not
> 'father'.
>
> >The genealogy on Joseph's line was from Coniah, under the curse. The
> >genealogy on Mary's line was from Nathan.
>
> There is no real evidence that either Matthew or Luke has a genealogy
> following Mary's line. The wording of both texts makes it clear that they
> are tracing Joseph's genealogy. To posit that Matthew is tracing Mary's
> line requires either assuming that Matthew didn't know the meaning of
ANHR
> or that the person you are talking to doesn't. The usage of this word is
> quite clear in the Greek literature. In the New Testament, the other
early
> Christian literature, the pagan literature, and all other texts even
close
> to the New Testament in time, ANHR means 'man'. When it is more specific
> than that, it means 'husband'. It is never used to mean 'father'.
>
> >It is worth noting that both evangelists are careful in their accounts
> >concerning the supernatural origin of Jesus Christ and his royal
descent.
> >They never took Joseph as his father but they do state that Mary is his
> >mother.
>
> True. They are both very careful to make this point. They both use
Joseph's
> genealogy while making the point that Jesus was not his physical son.
This
> is, of course, not a problem, since his being Joseph's adopted son was
> enough to make the point of the genealogy legitimate.
>
> The differences between the two genealogies are not a threat to Christian
> theology--or even to conservative views of inspiration. There is no need,
> even for a conservative Christian, to posit that one is Mary's genealogy
> despite the text's explicit claim to the contrary.
>
>
> -------------------------------------------------------------------------
> Micheal W. Palmer mwpalmer@earthlink.net
> Religion & Philosophy
> Meredith College
>
> Visit the Greek Language and Linguistics Gateway at
> http://home.earthlink.net/~mwpalmer/
> -------------------------------------------------------------------------
>
>
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Subject: Re: ANDRA and ANHR in the Genealogy of Jesus Christ
Date: Sun, 22 Jun 1997 14:41:17 +0700
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