From: CEP7@aol.com
Date: Sun Jul 13 1997 - 15:34:54 EDT
In a message dated 7/12/1997 10:37:55 PM, dixonps@juno.com (Paul S. Dixon)
wrote:
<<The problems with this are two too many. First, it has Paul then double
talking. He would then be saying something like this: now concerning the
coming of the Lord and our gathering together unto Him (2 Thess 2:1)(a
clear reference to the rapture) ... that day will not come except that
day (APOSTASIA) come first (PRWTON). Huh?>>
Paul,
One minor question. Does Rapture necessarily equal Day of the Lord. PT
theology distinguishes the two. If they are not equal then your first point
is not problematic. Personally, I think APOSTASIA is contextually defined in
vv. 10-12.
Charles Powell
DTS
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