From: Ben Crick (ben.crick@argonet.co.uk)
Date: Fri Oct 17 1997 - 17:40:24 EDT
On Thu 16 Oct 97 (21:20:01), mwpalmer@earthlink.net wrote:
> Except that later in John's Gospel the author says that Jesus' hour has
> *not* come. (See 8:20, for example.) The first time Jesus says it *has*
> come is in 12:23 isn't it?
Thank you all for your thoughts. ISTM that Jesus' "hour" is the time of
his arrest and crucifixion; John 12:23 and 13:1. If TI EMOI KAI SOI is
as I believe a Covenant formula, then the sacrifice that brings in the
New Covenant in his blood, hH KAINH DIAQHKH, is the one he performed on
the cross. It was at the cross when Jesus fulfilled it, that he passed his
filial duty towards his earthly mother on to John hO EPI TO STHQOS (John
19:26-27).
Jesus often urged those whom he had miraculously healed to keep silent, and
not to brag openly about it. If they did, he might be arrested and crucified
prematurely. So the "hour" for public signs and wonders was not yet. But he
had to begin somewhere sometime; so here at Cana of Galilee he performed his
first public Sign SHMEION or miracle. It was here that his disciples first
believed on him: TAUTHN EPOIHSEN ARCHN TWN SHMEIWN hO IESOUS EN KANA THS
GALILAIAS KAI EFANERWSEN THN DOXAN AUTOU, *KAI EPISTEUSAN EIS AUTON hOI
MAQHTAI AUTOU*. "Now was the hour" for at any rate his disciples to see
and believe on him. But the SHMEION which would convince the 3,000 saved
on the Day of Pentecost was the Resurrection (Acts 2:23-24, 37). Even Jesus'
own half-brothers and sisters did not believe on him until after the
resurrection: OUDE GAR hOI ADELFOI AUTOU EPISTEUON EIS AUTON. LEGEI OUN
AUTOIS hO IESOUS, *hO KAIROS hO EMOS OUPW PARESTIN* (John 7:5-6). Is this
OUPW interrogative, or declarative?
-- Revd Ben Crick, BA CF <ben.crick@argonet.co.uk> 232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK) http://www.cnetwork.co.uk/crick.htm
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