From: Carlton Winbery (winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net)
Date: Fri Dec 12 1997 - 08:37:42 EST
>Clay wrote:
>>
>> Can a nominative participle function as an adverb? The long participial
>>clause
>> in Acts 7:36 starting with POIHSAS appears to be adverbially related to
>> EXHGAGHEN. If this participle had been in the accusative I would have no
>> problem here but with it in the nominative I was tempted to find some way of
>> making it appositional to hOUTOS which I think is unlikely. I spent an hour
>> scanning my grammars for a discussion of the Nominative Participle used
>> adverbially and didn't find anything that seemed to address this topic.
>>
>As often happens the moment I send a question off to b-greek I find some new
>information which is relevant.
>
>Codex Bezae reads hO POIHSAS, which makes this a relative clause with Moses as
>the ultimate antecedent and hOUTOS as the local antecedent. This shows that at
>least one scribe did not think that this participle was functioning
>adverbially. Correct? Why does the participle appear to be adverbially related
>to EXHGAGHEN? Am I mixing up syntax and semantics here?
>
>Perhaps the on set of winter is making more muddle headed than usual.
A participle in the nominative can be adverbial whether it be
circumstantial, as this one, or temporal as in Mt. 6:17, "While fasting
(pres. ptc. in Nom.), anoint your head."
Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
Pineville, LA 71359
winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net
winbery@andria.lacollege.edu
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