From: Carlton Winbery (winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net)
Date: Thu Dec 25 1997 - 02:35:38 EST
Jonathan Robbie wrote;
>>Nouns don't have person morphologically expressed, but they certainly
>function
>>as third persons, and therefore the verb would agree in the third person. In
>>some languages, such as Spanish, subject nouns can in fact function as first
>>and second persons when plural. I wouldn't be the least bit surprised to
>>discover that Greek allows this too, though I don't have any examples to
>prove
>>it.
>
>Does anybody know if Greek acts this way?
>
Luke 6:31 KAI KAQOS QELETE hINA POIWSIN hUMIN hOI ANQRWPOI POIEITE AUTOIS
hOMOIWS. "And just as you wish that they do to you, you men do to them the
same."
In Greek the nom. pl. verb can function in apposition to the subject of the
verb no matter what person the verb might be. This, it seems to me,
accomplishes the same thing. "Men" could also be vocative-- "Men, you do
the same to them."
Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
Pineville, LA 71359
winberyc@popalex1.linknet.net
winbery@andria.lacollege.edu
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