From: Micheal Palmer (mwpalmer@earthlink.net)
Date: Tue Dec 30 1997 - 02:22:20 EST
>Jonathan Robbie wrote;
>
>>>Nouns don't have person morphologically expressed, but they certainly
>>function
>>>as third persons, and therefore the verb would agree in the third
>>>person. In
>>>some languages, such as Spanish, subject nouns can in fact function as first
>>>and second persons when plural. I wouldn't be the least bit surprised to
>>>discover that Greek allows this too, though I don't have any examples to
>>prove
>>>it.
>>
>>Does anybody know if Greek acts this way?
>>
Then at 11:35 AM +0400 12/25/97, someone wrote in reply:
>Luke 6:31 KAI KAQOS QELETE hINA POIWSIN hUMIN hOI ANQRWPOI POIEITE AUTOIS
>hOMOIWS. "And just as you wish that they do to you, you men do to them the
>same."
>
>In Greek the nom. pl. verb can function in apposition to the subject of the
>verb no matter what person the verb might be. This, it seems to me,
>accomplishes the same thing. "Men" could also be vocative-- "Men, you do
>the same to them."
This is really *not* an example of what Jonathan asked about. hOI ANQRWPOI
does not actually function as the subject of the second occurance of POIEW
(as the translation provided takes it to be), but of the first (which is
*third* person).
"And just as you wish that PEOPLE do to you, do to them the same."
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Micheal W. Palmer mwpalmer@earthlink.net
Religion & Philosophy
Meredith College
Visit the (New and Improved) Greek Language and Linguistics Gateway at
http://home.earthlink.net/~mwpalmer/
You can also access my online bibliography of Greek Linguistics at
http://home.earthlink.net/~mwpalmer/bibliography.html
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