From: Ruth Ellison (rufus@online.tmx.com.au)
Date: Tue Dec 30 1997 - 21:29:21 EST
Despite the seasonal appropriateness, the timing of this request is purely
coincidental. I've been reading Porter on aspect (head hasn't stopped
spinning yet) and in his section on possible Semitic influences he mentions
a theory that Luke 1-2 is translation Greek. Could somebody please
summarise for me what exactly this theory entails, the arguments for and
against, and some bibliographical pointers (preferably not German <g>)?
Thanks in anticipation. If by chance this matter has already been raised
in the past month, forgive me -- I'm way behind on reading digests.
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Ruth Ellison rufus@tmx.com.au
.sig currently in pre-season training
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