From: Jonathan Robie (jonathan@texcel.no)
Date: Fri Jan 02 1998 - 07:12:12 EST
At 08:41 PM 1/1/98 -0700, Wes Williams wrote:
>It suggests that if a count noun shows qualitativeness, then it is no
>longer definite or indefinite. Where is the evidence that a qualitative count
>noun cancels definiteness or indefiniteness?
To me, it seems that "definite and qualitative" might have a different
meaning from "indefinite and qualitative" in John 1:1c, if this verse is to
be understood qualitatively at all. Let me examine three *qualitative*
understandings of John 1:1c, starting with a translation Wallace suggests:
"And the Word was divine". I think one thing that make me uncomfortable
here is the notion of translating a noun with an adjective; qualitative use
of nouns may be a helpful concept, but is a noun, used qualitatively,
equivalent to an adjective?
"And the Word was God". Consider this as a "definite and qualitative"
statement; to me, the phrase "was God" can have a qualitative sense in
English - if the Word was God then he had power, glory, was worthy of
worship, etc.
"And the Word was a god". Consider this as an "indefinite and qualitative"
statement; to me, there is a difference between having the qualities and
attributes associated with "God" and having the qualities and attributes
associated with "a god", e.g. a member of the large and not particularly
exclusive club to which the Greek gods belonged.
Your second sentence suggests the need for a more rigorous linguistic
investigation, with clear linguistic tests for definiteness,
indefiniteness, and qualitativeness, so that evidence of cancelability can
be gathered. I wonder if this has ever been done? Naturally, this should be
done in a broader context than anarthrous pre-copulative nominative
predicate nouns...
Jonathan
jonathan@texcel.no
Texcel Research
http://www.texcel.no
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