From: Jonathan Robie (jonathan@texcel.no)
Date: Wed Jan 07 1998 - 17:30:20 EST
Al,
My understanding was that you had asserted that the article is necessary
for a title. My examples were meant to demonstrate that this is not so. If
titles can occur without the article in other contexts, why shouldn't they
do so when used as predicates? If you assert that this is not possible,
what is your evidence for that view? I also used the phrase CRISTOS HN hO
LOGOS to demonstrate that a title phrase can grammatically be used as a
non-articular predicate. I still do not think that the grammar constrains
us to one interpretation or another of John 1:1c.
I'm intentionally ignoring what "Theologians have asserted" and also what
"some say", and even, with some difficulty, ignoring the statement that
"Some assert that the name Jehovah is for the second person of the
Trinity", simply because b-greek is better suited to discussing the meaning
of the Greek text itself.
One little nit:
>Next is Luke 2:11. The title is without anaphora.
I assume "without anaphora" means "has an article"; the phrase somehow
reminds me of a restaurant that served "caffeinated" and "non-caffeinated"
coffee. Here is Luke 2:11:
Luke 2:11 hOTI ETECQH hUMIN SHMERON SWTHR hOS ESTIN *CRISTOS* KURIOS EN POLEI
DAUID
I don't see an article for that title.
At this point, I'm not sure that we are adding new information to the
discussion, and I don't know that we will come to agreement on this point.
Perhaps we should agree not to go further with this unless one of us has
new information.
Jonathan
jonathan@texcel.no
Texcel Research
http://www.texcel.no
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