From: Paul S. Dixon (dixonps@juno.com)
Date: Mon Jan 26 1998 - 14:51:24 EST
On Mon, 26 Jan 1998 11:43:40 -0600 "Carl W. Conrad"
<cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu> writes:
>At 11:20 AM -0600 1/26/98, Jim West wrote:
>>At 11:04 AM 1/26/98 -0500, you wrote:
>>>Dear Greekers,
>>>
>>>I've noticed that the active voice MOICHEUOW is usually
>>>used; but the passive form ( MOICHEUOMAI ) is used in
>>>Mt 5:32, Mt 19:9, Mk 10:11-12, and Jn 8:4. This is a little
>>>puzzling to me. Especially:
>>>
>>> "they said to Him, 'Teacher, this woman has
>>> been caught in adultery ( MOICHEUOMENH ),
>>> in the very act.' " -Jn 8:4
>>>
>>>My question: How can she be "caught...in the very act" of
>>>being adulterated? What is the significance of being in the
>>>form of the verb? Is this the normal way to speak of a woman
>>>in an adulterous act?
>>>
>>>Thank you for your help.
>>>
>>>Denny
>>
>>Carl may well be right- but I would argue that the passive verb is used
>>because, in the Palestine of Jesus' day, the woman was a victim of any
>>illicit action. In Roman and Greek law women had rights of their own-
but
>>in Judaism women were granted rights only through their husbands.
Thus, if
>>a woman were abandoned, divorced, or childless, her only forms of
support
>>were to return home in shame to the family (not likely) or become the
wife
>>of another (again, not likely) or become a prostitute. In the case
Jesus
>>cites the woman has been divorced by her husband for no cause and thus
is
>>forced into an adulterous situation merely to survive. She is
adulterated!
>
>This is true, and by no means insignificant, but it ignores the
>context of the passage that's being asked about as well as the fact that
the
>participle is in the present tense: The woman has been caught actively
>engaging in adultery (KATEILHPTAI EP' AUTOFWRWi MOICEUMENH). It's not
>a matter of the woman being cited--in fact, the passage tells what those
>who bring the woman to Jesus are saying to him as they prepare to stone
>her. In 8:3 it's AGOUSIN ... GUNAIKA EPI MOICEIAi KATEILHMMENHN, but
>8:4 with the present participle MOICEUOMENH puts her in the act when
>caught, not just in the act of being divorced by her husband.
In Mt 5:32, where the only unequivocally passive form exists (of the
above cited passages: Mt 5:32, Mt 19:9, Mk 10:11-12, Jn 8:4), does
MOICEUQHNAI require, or even suggest, that the woman is not guilty of
adultery? I think not.
We certainly have examples in scripture where others are made or caused
to sin by the deeds of others (e.g., causing the brother to stumble, 1
Cor 8, or the severe warning of Christ against causing a little one to
sin, Mt 18:6 ff). In none of these cases, however, is the one made to
sin considered not guilty.
Rather, the point seems to be that the one who causes such things to
happen will be guilty and will receive the greater judgement. That seems
to be the case in Mt 5:32 where the passive is used to communicate that
the burden of causing the woman to commit adultery falls upon the man
who has divorced his wife PAREKTOS LOGOU PORNEIAS. It does not say, nor
imply, however, that the woman who so remarries is not guilty of
adultery.
Paul Dixon
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