From: Jim West (jwest@highland.net)
Date: Wed Jan 28 1998 - 11:23:54 EST
At 11:14 AM 1/28/98 -0500, you wrote:
>Denny Diehl here,
>
>Thanks to all who participated in the discussion on the
>MOICHEUW - MOICHEUOMENH. Spiro Zodhiates comments
>on Mt 5:32 in his book What About Divorce:
>
>" 'MOICHATAI', therefore, must be translated "is made to
>suffer adultery". ...Elliott states: 'Turning now to verse 32,
>Jesus refers to the case of a man and his wife. He specifies
>that the woman has not been guilty of sexual sin, but her
>husband divorces her. Jesus says that when he divorces
>such a wife, a man ' POIEI AUTHN MOICEUQHNAI ', causes
>her to be adulterated,' a phrase which specifies sin on the
>husband's part but implies none at all for the wife. She has
>not committed adultery nor become an adulteress -- the
>Greek construction does not allow such meaning. The passive
>form of the infinitive indicates something done against her,
>not by her."
>
Quite right- though I would add that clearly she has done something!
>
>Denny here again: I would like to know what you think of the
>above statement. I hope this is not beyond the bounds of b-
>greek, since I'm quoting an author who is not present to
>defend himself, etc., it so, please forgive me. I certainly
>appreciate all the contributions thus far.
>
It probably wont surprise you to learn that I am in basic agreement with
these statements.
>Denny
Jim
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Bible
Quartz Hill School of Theology
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