From: A. C. Livengood, Sr. (livngood@mars.superlink.net)
Date: Wed Jan 28 1998 - 05:50:11 EST
Greetings all.
I am interested in your (collective) opinions regarding the use of MEN .
. . DE as it appears in Ephesians 4.11.
Should it be trans. as "smooth" (i.e. without a marked antithetical
purpose) as most -if not all- renderings submit? Or, should there be a
distinction made between the terms to which they refer?
(In the event that responses demand a theological opinion, private
responses are welcomed.)
Thanks in advance,
A. C. Livengood, Sr. (Andy)
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