From: Brrolan@ra.rockwell.com
Date: Thu Jan 29 1998 - 14:07:07 EST
On 1/29/98 Craig R. Harmon wrote:
[snip]
Now another question. What is the significance (if any) of the plural
number
of SABBATWN?
[end snip]
Please correct me if I am wrong, but isn't "sabbath" also used for the
passover, even though it may not fall on the seventh day? I base this on
the following verses:
Mark 15:42 - And now when the even was come, because it was the
preparation, *that is, the day before the sabbath,*
John 19:31 - The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the
bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day {SABBATW}, (*for
that sabbath {SABBATOU} day was an high day*,) besought Pilate that their
legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.
{Being only a novice in greek, could someone please comment on this
occurrence of SABBATW? Is it also plural?}
Luke is not nearly as clear:
Lu 23:54 And that day was the preparation, and the sabbath drew on.
Lu 23:56 And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested
the sabbath day according to the commandment.
Matthew 28:1 having "Sabbaths", plural, supports the idea that there were
*two* sabbaths that week, one being the passover, and the other being the
seventh day. This understanding also can eliminate the tension between
Jesus' simile of his death in Matthew 12:40 and the standard Friday evening
= 1 day, Sunday morning = 1 day explanation, which is only 2 nights.
Mt 12:40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's
belly; so shall the Son of man be *three days* and *three nights* in the
heart of the earth.
Open to correction . . .
Bret R. Rolan P.E.
BRRolan@ra.rockwell.com
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