Re: 1Cor13:1 tongues of angels

From: Ben Crick (ben.crick@argonet.co.uk)
Date: Fri Feb 27 1998 - 00:27:42 EST


On Thu 26 Feb 98 (08:15:30 +1100), gathas@mail.usyd.edu.au wrote:
> Is not the literal "language of angels" Hebrew? Did not they pass on
> the binding Law (Heb 2:2)?

 A Welsh friend of mine is quite sure that we all need to learn Welsh,
 because since 1906 [the Welsh revival] that is the language of heaven! 8-)
 Welsh is a Celtic language with its origins in the Second Danubian migration,
 or so I am told.

 I don't think that western Semitic is necessarily the language that God
 speaks, just because it was the language in which God spoke to Moses at
 Sinai and subsequently to the prophets.

 The angels had a role in the promulgation of the Law of God (Acts 7:53;
 Galatians 3:19); but to make any sense it had to be in the tongue of the
 prophets (Hebrew), not in any angelic /lingua franca/.

 The language of heaven, if there is one, would be some sort of pre-Tower of
 Babel mother tongue; like the hypothetical Indo-Aryan?

 The Gift of Pentecost was the beginning of the undoing of the Tower of
 Babel confusion, as each of fifteen named linguistic groups heard, in their
 own mother tongue, "the wonderful works of God"; i.e., in context, the
 Resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead.

 God has "gone to print" in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. The UBS wants to
 translate it into every major language before the PAROUSIA. There are
 about 3,000 tongues to go, IIRC!

-- 
 Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
 <ben.crick@argonet.co.uk>
 232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK)
 http://www.cnetwork.co.uk/crick.htm


This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:39:07 EDT