From: George Athas (gathas@mail.usyd.edu.au)
Date: Sun Mar 15 1998 - 16:20:41 EST
Steven Cox wrote:
> Why is SHMERON not translated in the following:
>
> PANTA OSA EGW ENTELLOMAI SOI
> "whatsoever I command you today.." (Ex 34:11)
>
> Is it because in Hebrew there is an emphatic use of 'today', particularly
> with speech verbs, without the time 'today' being stressed or even required?:
>
> OMOSON MOI SHMERON
> "Swear to me today.. " (Ge 25:33)
>
> DIAMARTUROMAI hUMIN SHMERON
> "to witness to you today.." (De 8:19)
>
> When the apostle Paul uses SHMERON, again in connection with verbs of speech
> is it an idiom or is it required by the context of the text?
>
> DIOTI MARTUROMAI EN THi SHMERON
> "I declare to you today.. " (Acts 20:26)
>
> EPI SOU MELLWN SHMERON APOLOGEISQAI
> "I will testify to you today" (Acts 26:2)
>
> If there is an emphatic use, is it a hebraism, or one also used by classical
> writers?
Steven,
The Hebrew usage of "today" (HAYYOM) is not an idiom that goes hand in hand with
speech verbs. A translation is always required ö it can never be skipped over or
ignored as simply a structural element that has no meaning in itself. Thus, in
answer to your question about Ex 34:11, I do not know why the Greek misses it.
Perhaps it was an accidental omission; perhaps it was not there in the Hebrew
manuscripts that the Greek was taken from. I guess only God knows why SHMERON is
not there in the Greek!
Best regards to you!
George Athas
PhD (Cand.), University of Sydney
Tutor of Hebrew, Moore Theological College
Phone: 0414 839 964 ICQ#: 5866591
Email: gathas@mail.usyd.edu.au
(Visit the Tel Dan Inscription Website at)
(http://www-personal.usyd.edu.au/~gathas/teldan.htm)
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:39:10 EDT