Re: John 1:1 EN ARQH

From: dalmatia@eburg.com
Date: Tue Mar 17 1998 - 17:48:03 EST


Kyrychenko wrote:
>
> George Blaisdell wrote:
> >And yet, in virtually all mss, there is no THi ~ And my suggestive
> >question to anyone reading John is... Why?
>
> May be because this word being absolute in itself does not require the
> definite article?
>
> Alexander Kyrychenko

Exactly! Yet I would venture a guess that when taken out of the
context of the opening of the book of John, the THi is found often
with ARXH. The suggestion I raise here is that the absence of the
article may give this word a boundary-less vastness that it could not
have were the THi 'modifying' it.

Thank-you for responding...

George



This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:39:14 EDT