From: Steven Cox (scox@chinaonline.com.cn.net)
Date: Fri Apr 03 1998 - 08:19:37 EST
Hi David
This isn't cc-ed to b-greek, because of Carl's comment
on the original thread title, but between ourselves
I can't ignore this as I posed a question about SHMERON
with speech verbs in LXX and Acts about 2 weeks ago
(though as I said then, I don't think that Luke 23:43
is in the same category as usage in Acts20:26, 26:2,29)
At 17:49 98/04/03 +1000, McKay family wrote:
>O.K. I have a silly Greek question.
>Has this verse been discussed before?
>Luke 23:43
(a) Yes, this has been discussed before and definitely in
the archives. But if like me you don't have Internet
access at home you're stuffed :-)
>Is it equally legitimate to put the comma after SHMERON, or is this usual
>break up more likely to be correct?
(b) The comma here [or there] is attributing SHMERON to a verb.
But attribution of adverbs is always tricky in languages where
(unlike adjectives in Gk) they are uninflected. I wonder
if anyone's feeling for verb-adverb word order, combined
with allowance for possible disruption of a neutral word
order for reasons of emphasis, is going good enough to be
dogmatic in a passage like this in a dead language??
(c) F.F. Bruce has a good analysis of this "Lukan comma" ;-)
but I regret I can't give you the reference because it
was given me a Pakistani seminarian in Seoul 10 years
ago and I've totally forgotten it...
(d) Christ's statement is part of a dialogue and my personal
solution is to think that any temporal adverb in his answer
needs reading in the temporal context of the original
request hOTAN ktl. That context seems more relevant than
than fiddling about with the comma
(e) Does the textual variance affect likely attribution of adverb?
AMHN SOI LEGW SHMERON MET' EMOU ESHi EN TWi PARADEISWi
AMHN LEGW SOI SHMERON MET' EMOU ESHi EN TWi PARADEISWi
Rgds
Steven
(and no I'm not a JW, though I respect their pacifism and
zeal, even if theologically I have several bones to pick)
At 17:49 98/04/03 +1000, McKay family wrote:
>O.K. I have a silly Greek question.
>
>Has this verse been discussed before?
>Luke 23:43
>KAI EIPEN AUTWi, AMHN SOI LEGW, SHMERON MET' EMOU ESHi EN TWi PARADEISWi.
>
>This is the way it is written in my Greek NT. [O.K. Uses a much
>better-looking font!]
>
>Is it equally legitimate to put the comma after SHMERON, or is this usual
>break up more likely to be correct?
>
>I hope it is kosher for me to say that the people who want the comma after
>SHMERON, seem to have theological, not grammatical reasons.
>
>David McKay
>music@fl.net.au
>
>
>
>
>
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