From: Paul S. Dixon (dixonps@juno.com)
Date: Mon Apr 20 1998 - 17:58:29 EDT
On Sun, 19 Apr 1998 19:05:19 +0200 Rolf Furuli <furuli@online.no> writes:
>Paul dixon writes,
>
><That the two Greek words have the same Aramaic derivative only
reinforces
><this view in my judgement.
>
>Dear Paul,
>
>Just a comment about your last sentence. Jack made a fine Aramaic
>retroverion of the verses, but we cannot necessarily conclude from
>this that AGAPAW and FILEW are translations of the same word.
>
>There is evidence that both Aramaic and Hebrew were spoken in Palestine
in
>the first century CE, but we do not know if Hebrew was the language of
>the people and Aramaic was the language for the learned ones or the
reverse,
>and neither do we know to which extent one of the languages was more
>popular in one area of the country. The NT calls the normal language
>"Hebrew", and I see no compelling evidence for the popular view that
>"Hebrew" in the NT means Aramaic (Jack and I disagree here). Jospehus`
>use of "Hebrew" strongly suggests that for him "Hebrew" meant "Hebrew".
Be
>that as it may.
<snip>
Thanks, Rolf. Are there not at least a few occasions where Christ
clearly speaks in Aramaic (e.g., Mt 27:47, Mk 5:41, etc.)? Are there
places where He speaks in Hebrew?
Paul Dixon
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