From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Thu Jul 02 1998 - 14:34:21 EDT
At 02:19 PM 7/2/98 -0400, you wrote:
>
>In that case, it's pretty clear that it is outside the scope of this list,
>since even trying to discuss the question forces us into a discussion of
>historical-critical criteria, and we've repeatedly said we don't want to
>discuss that here. You might want to try one of the textual criticism lists.
>
It is not a text-critical question. And, as I mentioned, I do not intend to
get into a debate here about Jesus' ipsissima. My question is about the
possible use of Aramaic words by Greek writers.
>I'm not squashing this discussion because of my skepticism of historical
>criticism, but because experience has shown that discussing it here rapidly
>leads to flames, and relatively few people here have the intricate
>expertise needed to discuss historical criticism meaningfully anyway.
>
>Jonathan
I have always found historical-critical tools utterly and completely
necessary for Biblical exegesis. Once one knows what the text says (Greek),
one must know what it means (historical criticism in all its forms). To
have one without the other is to have half a coin- an unusable, untradable,
pointless commodity. If you are correct, and most people on the list have
no historical-critical acumen, then what's the point of reading Greek at
all? Whether it be the Bible or Homer?
Anyway, back to my question- what is the semantic field of aramaic words
translated into "temeion" by Greek authors, in or out of the NT?
Thanks,
Jim
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
Pastor, Petros Baptist Church
Adjunct Professor of Bible,
Quartz Hill School of Theology
jwest@highland.net
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